I have a question about the notation used in this problem please dont solve the problem for me. Sho

cyfwelestoi

cyfwelestoi

Answered question

2022-05-29

I have a question about the notation used in this problem please dont solve the problem for me.
Show that | | X Y | | 1 = | | X | | 1 | | Y | | 1 for independent r.vs X and Y. Show further that if X and Y are also integrable, then E ( X Y ) = E ( X ) E ( Y )
I don't understand what the difference between | | X | | 1 and E ( | X | ). I assume we're talking about the L 1 ( P ) norm? But then
| | X | | 1 = Ω | X ( ω ) | d P ( ω ) = E ( | X | )
So if this is finite, then E ( X ) exists therefore it is integrable already (so why "also"?) Therefore the first "show that" would follow from the second

Answer & Explanation

Elbrinidr

Elbrinidr

Beginner2022-05-30Added 9 answers

Under independence | | X Y | | 1 = | | X | | 1 | | Y | | 1 holds even if E | X | or E | Y | is infinity (by Tonelli's Theorem). But E ( X Y ) = ( E X ) ( E Y ) holds if the expectations are finite.

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