I'm studying Pavliotis' Stochastic Processes and I am having trouble with one of the exercises.
Specifically the first exercise of chapter two is prove that the Markov property in the sense off the immediate future being independent of the past given the present, i.e. implies that arbitrary futures are independent of the past given the present, i.e. .
Conceptually I imagine a proof using induction along the lines of: Assume the equality holds for some m, then
However, this is based on intuition and my experience non-measure-theoretic probability theory. I cannot justify these steps when I think of as a measure and meaning . In fact I have had trouble finding a definition of conditional probability that is at all helpful. Most authors seem to provide the abstract definition in terms of conditional expectation with respect to -algebra, but I haven't found any resources that show how to work with this definition.
So my question is: how (if it all) are these steps, particularly the first two equalities justified from a measure theoretic perspective?