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Brooke Kramer

Brooke Kramer

Answered question

2022-05-26

Let
σ ( n ) = d n d
the sum of divisor function. I've deduced, but I don't know how prove directly
σ ( n ) = m = 1 n k = 1 m ( 1 ) n k cos ( π n ( 2 m ) k m ) .

Answer & Explanation

delalbaef

delalbaef

Beginner2022-05-27Added 10 answers

Suppose we have the usual σ ( n ) = d | n d and wish to show that
σ ( n ) = m = 1 n k = 1 m ( 1 ) n k cos ( π n ( 2 m ) k m ) .
This is
m = 1 n k = 1 m ( 1 ) n k ( 1 ) n k cos ( 2 π n k m ) = ( m = 1 n k = 1 m e 2 π i n k / m ) .
which is
( m = 1 n e 2 π i n / m k = 0 m 1 e 2 π i n k / m ) = ( m = 1 n e 2 π i n / m × m × [ [ m | n ] ] ) = ( m | n m ) = σ ( n )
as claimed.
Here we have used the fact that
k = 0 m 1 e 2 π i n k / m = e 2 π i n 1 e 2 π i n / m 1 = 0
when e 2 π i n / m 1 and m otherwise which yields
m × [ [ m | n ] ] .

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