Is the probability model given by the following distribution function F <mrow class=

hushjelpw4

hushjelpw4

Answered question

2022-05-28

Is the probability model given by the following distribution function
F p ( x ) = { k = 1 x p ( 1 p ) k 1  if  x 1 0  else 
dominated? (in which case exhibit a dominant measure and give the Radon-Nikodym derivative).
I know the definition of a dominated model:
A model ( P θ ) θ is dominated if there exists a measure μ > 0 and σ −finite such that P θ is dominated by μ and P θ is absolutely continuous w.r.t μ
But I don't know how to show that the model given by this distribution function is dominated.

Answer & Explanation

Makai Blackwell

Makai Blackwell

Beginner2022-05-29Added 11 answers

The measure you are looking for is the counting measure on the integers (or on the support of the measure associated to F). Notice that since F p takes all its mass on Z 1 , if the counting measure of a set is zero, then so is its probability under the measure associated to F p .

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