I'm dealing with these two integrals: I 1 </msub> = <msubsup> &#x222B;<!-- ∫

shelohz0

shelohz0

Answered question

2022-05-23

I'm dealing with these two integrals:
I 1 = π π cos ( x ) cos ( n x ) ( 1 + e cos ( x ) ) 3 d x , I 2 = π π sin ( x ) sin ( n x ) ( 1 + e cos ( x ) ) 3 d x
is there a way to reduce them to a Hypergeometric form or to solve them analytically?

Answer & Explanation

bideanbarrenaf5

bideanbarrenaf5

Beginner2022-05-24Added 8 answers

In terms of regularized generalized hypergeometric functions
I 1 = 2 π ( 1 e ) 3 [ 3 F ~ 2 ( 3 2 , 2 , 3 ; 2 n , n + 2 ; 2 e 1 e ) 3 F ~ 2 ( 1 2 , 1 , 3 ; 1 n , n + 1 ; 2 e 1 e ) ]
, provided that ( e ) 0 0 ( e ) < 1
There is no restriction about n.

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