Is it possible to have <munder> <mo movablelimits="true" form="prefix">lim&#x2006;sup

Davin Fields

Davin Fields

Answered question

2022-05-20

Is it possible to have lim sup n g h n 1 h n 1 = ?
Consider a metric space ( Ξ , F , ν ) and g and { h n } n non negative, measurable functions in this space. Consider then the norm
g 1 = Ξ | g ( ω ) | d ν ( ω )
and that
1. g 1 <
2. h n 1 < n
3. h n 1, so we have that g h n 1 1 n .
4. lim n h n = 0

My question is, assuming that g doesn't depend on n, is it possible to have
lim sup n g h n 1 h n 1 = ?
The result is true if g and h n were uncorrelated, or at least negativelly correlated (that is, g h n 1 g 1 h n 1 ). But I was wondering if the fact g doesn't depend on n is enough.

Answer & Explanation

glorietka4b

glorietka4b

Beginner2022-05-21Added 14 answers

We will consider the space [ 0 , 1 ]. The function g ( x ) = x 1 / 2 is integrable on [ 0 , 1 ], so g 1 < . Let h n be the indicator function for the interval [ 0 , n 1 ]. Then h n 1 and h n 1 = 1 / n 0. On the other hand,
g h n 1 = 0 n 1 x 1 / 2 d x n 1 / 2 ,
since x 1 / 2 > n 1 / 2 for x [ 0 , n 1 ]. Therefore g h n h n n 1 / 2 , which diverges to +

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