wo identitical pendula each of length and with bobs of mass are free to oscillate in the same plane. The bobs are joined by a spring with spring constant , by looking for solutions where and vary harmonically at the same angular frequency , form a simultaneous equation for the amplitudes of oscillation and .
Considering the forces acting on each pendulum we can derive the following coupled-differential equations:
Where and are the displacements of each of the pendulum as functions of time. If we assume they oscillate harmonically with angular frequency then we can write :
Substituting these solutions back into and we get:
However, without assuming that , in which case everything factors out nicely to leave a simultaneous equation in and , I cannot see a way of making it linear in and . So am I expected to use this assumption or is there a mathematical way of simplifying it?
If it is the former, then what would the physical justification for this assumption be?