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Denisse Valdez

Denisse Valdez

Answered question

2022-05-20

How can I understand this?
q n = 0 t p + n q p + n q = n = 0 q 1 ω n p ln ( 1 ω n t )

Answer & Explanation

Austin Solis

Austin Solis

Beginner2022-05-21Added 12 answers

I'm proving this as an equality of power series in the indeterminate t, where log ( 1 x ) is defined by k 0 x k k . Here goes (throwing out a minus sign):
n = 0 q 1 ω n p k 0 ( ω n t ) k k = n = 0 q 1 k 0 ω n ( k p ) t k k
= k 0 t k k n = 0 q 1 ω n ( k p )
If k p 0 mod q 0 q 1 ω n ( k p ) = 0 q 1 1 = q. If k p 0 mod q, then write x = ω k p = x, another nontrivial q t h root of unity. We have
( 1 + x + + x q 1 ) ( x 1 ) = x q 1 ( 1 + x + + x q 1 ) = x q 1 x 1 = 1 1 x 1 = 0
Thus this equals
q k p mod q t k k
which isn't quite what you have, unless p < q

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