I need help computing this integral: <mtable displaystyle="true"> <mlabeledtr> <mtd id

Berghofaei0e

Berghofaei0e

Answered question

2022-04-12

I need help computing this integral:
(1) 0 x cos ( a x ) x 2 + 1 coth ( s x ) d x

Answer & Explanation

percolarse2rzd

percolarse2rzd

Beginner2022-04-13Added 17 answers

I = 0 x cos ( a x ) x 2 + 1 coth ( s x ) d x
Recall the Mittag-Leffler pole expansion of cot ( z )
cot ( z ) = 1 z + 2 z k = 1 1 z 2 ( k π ) 2
Letting z i s x and multiplying by i gives:
coth ( s x ) = 1 s x + 2 s x k = 1 1 ( s x ) 2 + ( k π ) 2
Substituting this expression in, we have then:
I = 1 s 0 cos ( a x ) x 2 + 1 d x + k = 1 0 2 s x 2 cos ( a x ) ( x 2 + 1 ) ( ( s x ) 2 + ( k π ) 2 ) d x
We can separate the integrals because each converges individually. The first integral has a well-known result:
1 s 0 cos ( a x ) x 2 + 1 d x = π e a 2 s
The second integral is a little less trivial, but it can be done.
Mathematica gives:
0 2 s x 2 cos ( a x ) ( x 2 + 1 ) ( ( s x ) 2 + ( k π ) 2 ) d x = π 2 k e π a k s π e a s π 2 k 2 s 2
Furthermore, Mathematica gives:
k = 1 π 2 k e π a k s π e a s π 2 k 2 s 2 = 1 2 e π a s ( Φ ( e a π s , 1 , 1 s π ) + Φ ( e a π s , 1 , 1 + s π ) ) π e a 2 s + π 2 e a cot ( s )
Where Φ is the Lerch transcendent.
Thus summing the two results, we have:
I = 1 2 e π a s ( Φ ( e a π s , 1 , 1 s π ) + Φ ( e a π s , 1 , 1 + s π ) ) + π 2 e a cot ( s )
However, this expression does not hold for s being an integer multiple of π due to cot ( s ) causing it to be an indeterminate when one takes the limit, so there needs to be some finesse for evaluating these cases. I'm not sure if there is simplification possible for the result I obtained for I involving Φ.

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