Let ( X , &#x03BC;<!-- μ --> ) be a probability measure space. Suppose f

Jay Barrett

Jay Barrett

Answered question

2022-04-12

Let ( X , μ ) be a probability measure space. Suppose f n f pointwise and f n is dominated by some μ-integrable function. Let ( A n ) n be a sequence of measurable sets converging to some measurable S with μ ( S ) = 1.

Question. Is it true that X f n 1 A n d μ X f d μ ?

A half-baked idea
Define g n := f n 1 A n . In case,

Conjecture. 1 A n 1 S pointwise,

which I suspect to be true, then | g n | is dominated by a μ-integrable function and so the Dominated Convergence Theorem gaurantees that X g n d P X f 1 S d P = X f d P since P ( S ) = 1.

Answer & Explanation

radcas87gex5r

radcas87gex5r

Beginner2022-04-13Added 13 answers

Another way to show this is a 2 ϵ-argument. First note that for any integrable function f, we have that
X f d μ = S f d μ + X S f d μ = S f d μ .
As X S has measure zero. Then we have that
| X f n 1 A n d μ X f d μ | = | X f n 1 A n d μ X f 1 S d μ | = | X f n 1 A n d μ X f 1 S n d μ + X f n 1 S d μ X f n 1 S d μ | | X f n 1 A n d μ X f n 1 S | + | X f 1 S d μ X f n 1 S d μ | | X f n ( 1 A n 1 S ) d μ | + | X ( f n f ) 1 S d μ | μ ( A n S ) | | f n | | + | | 1 S | | | | f n f | | L 1 0
As f n f pointwise and f is uniformely bounded, and A n S.

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