p-values behave uniformly. Now as p(np) is fixed and n goes to infinity, binomial converges to norma

Direkotogbkmn

Direkotogbkmn

Answered question

2022-05-08

p-values behave uniformly. Now as p(np) is fixed and n goes to infinity, binomial converges to normal(Poisson). Now suppose I take random binomial samplings and fir normal(Poisson) to it, for say n = 1000. Will my p-value still be uniformly distributed or as binomial converges to normal(Poisson), p-values mostly will be in 0.8-1?

Answer & Explanation

Maeve Holloway

Maeve Holloway

Beginner2022-05-09Added 25 answers

I think what you are referring to is sampling a binomial random variable X and then looking at the distribution of F ( X ) where F is the binomial CDF. This is actually not uniform; it is a sort of discrete approximation of a uniform variable. In the case where normal approximation becomes valid, it converges to a uniform variable. In the case where Poisson approximation becomes valid, it does not converge to a uniform variable, but rather to the distribution of F ( P ) where P has the limiting Poisson distribution and F is the limiting Poisson CDF. Again this isn't uniform.

Do you have a similar question?

Recalculate according to your conditions!

New Questions in College Statistics

Ask your question.
Get an expert answer.

Let our experts help you. Answer in as fast as 15 minutes.

Didn't find what you were looking for?