# How to prove that the inverse Laplace Transform

How to prove that the inverse Laplace Transform of zero is zero itself?
${L}^{-1}\left\{0\right\}=0$
I know that the inverse Laplace Transform of a constant is Dirac's Delta. But I think that that applies only to positive constants.
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Buizzae77t
If $L\left(f\right)=F$, then ${L}^{-1}\left(F\right)=f.\phantom{\rule{1em}{0ex}}L\left(0\right)=0$ because L is a linear operator. Or you can actually compute L(0) using the definition.