How to prove that the inverse Laplace Transform

Emilia Hoffman 2022-04-06 Answered
How to prove that the inverse Laplace Transform of zero is zero itself?
L1{0}=0
I know that the inverse Laplace Transform of a constant is Dirac's Delta. But I think that that applies only to positive constants.
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Answers (1)

Buizzae77t
Answered 2022-04-07 Author has 13 answers
If L(f)=F, then L1(F)=f.L(0)=0 because L is a linear operator. Or you can actually compute L(0) using the definition.
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