How did he get the fraction with fraction power?
So we have a simple equation that is from Kepler.
In an explanation of a physics book, you can resolve for like this:
And I found
First question, is my approach correct? My second and main question is how did he get the equation that I stated first. The physics book doesn't explain how to get from the main equation to . Can someone explain me, please? (By the way, of course the equation for and should be different).