For the following statement, either prove that they are true or provide a counterexample: Let a, b, m, n in Z such that m, n > 1 and n | m. If a -= b (mod m), then a -= b (mod n)

Emeli Hagan

Emeli Hagan

Answered question

2020-11-12

For the following statement, either prove that they are true or provide a counterexample:
Let a, b, m, nZ such that m, n > 1 and nm. If ab(modm), then
ab(modn)

Answer & Explanation

aprovard

aprovard

Skilled2020-11-13Added 94 answers

Given that,
Let a, b, m, nZ such that m, n > 1 and nm.
ab(modm)
By using the definition of congruence relation,
ab(modm) means m divides b-a.
m(ba)
Also given that nm,
By using,
If a|bandb|cthenac.
Thus, n|mandm|(ba) implies that n(ba).
By using reverse definition of congruence,
abmod(n)
Therefore, if ab(modm)andnm then
ab(modn).

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