Why \int_0^{2\pi} \sin^2 xdx \neq \int_0^{2\pi} \sin x \sin nx dx \to n=1By orthogonality

Adrian Cervantes

Adrian Cervantes

Answered question

2022-01-27

Why 02πsin2xdx02πsinxsinnxdxn=1
By orthogonality, we know that
02πsinmxsinnxdx=π if m=n and 0 otherwise. Nevertheless, when I am calculating it as follows, I get 0.
02πsinxsinnxdx=12[sin[(1n)x]1nsin[(1+n)x]1+n]02π
But the above quantity is 0 even if n=1. Shouldn't it be π?

Answer & Explanation

Matias Lang

Matias Lang

Beginner2022-01-28Added 10 answers

Your work so far is correct, but things like these are often a sort of "by cases" thing: in this case, the cases are n=1 and n1. When n1, you can show that expression is 0, but its
Karli Kaiser

Karli Kaiser

Beginner2022-01-29Added 9 answers

In the limit of n0 you have
limn0xsin(1n)x(1n)x=x
Therefore
limn002πsinxsin(nx)dx=12[xsin2x2]02π=π

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