How can you prove e^{\pi i}+1=0?

osnomu3

osnomu3

Answered question

2022-01-17

How can you prove eπi+1=0?

Answer & Explanation

Ella Williams

Ella Williams

Beginner2022-01-18Added 28 answers

ex=n=0xnn!
ex=1+x+x22+x33!+x44!+
eix=1+ix+(ix)22+(ix)33!+(ix)44!+(ix)55!+(ix)66!
eix=(1+(ix)22+(ix)44!+(ix)66!+)+(ix+(ix)33!+(ix)55!+(ix)77!+)
eix=(1x22+x44!x26!+)+i(xx33!+x55!x77!+)
eix=cosx+isinx
eiπ=cosπ+isinπ
eiπ=1+0
eiπ+1=0
Andrew Reyes

Andrew Reyes

Beginner2022-01-19Added 24 answers

Taking the derivative of the function f(x)=cosx+isinx we obtain f(x)=sinx+icosx=if(x) and we have f(0)=1. Solving the differential equation gives f(x)=eix.
And cosx+isinx=eix immediately gives eiπ+1=0.
alenahelenash

alenahelenash

Expert2022-01-24Added 556 answers

Well known Euler's formula is writen as eiθ=cosθ+isinθ,when θ=π, we can write eiπ=cosπ+isinπ, we know that cosπ=1 andsinπ=0, hence eiπ=cosπ+isinπeiπ=1+i0eiπeπi=1+0 eπi+1=0

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