Describe one similarity and one difference between the definitions of $\mathrm{sin}0,{\textstyle \phantom{\rule{1em}{0ex}}}\text{and}{\textstyle \phantom{\rule{1em}{0ex}}}\mathrm{cos}0$ , where 0 is an acute angle of a right triangle.

chillywilly12a
2020-10-28
Answered

Describe one similarity and one difference between the definitions of $\mathrm{sin}0,{\textstyle \phantom{\rule{1em}{0ex}}}\text{and}{\textstyle \phantom{\rule{1em}{0ex}}}\mathrm{cos}0$ , where 0 is an acute angle of a right triangle.

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Bertha Stark

Answered 2020-10-29
Author has **96** answers

Step 1

Similarity: If hypotenuse is given then using both$\mathrm{sin}0{\textstyle \phantom{\rule{1em}{0ex}}}\text{and}{\textstyle \phantom{\rule{1em}{0ex}}}\mathrm{cos}0$ we can evaluate length of sides of a right triangle.

Step 2

Difference:

$\mathrm{sin}0$ : Find the side opposite to the acute angle 0

$\mathrm{cos}0$ :Find the adjacent side to the acute angle 0

Similarity: If hypotenuse is given then using both

Step 2

Difference:

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I'm curious whether it is possible to find the length of base of the triangle without using Pythagorean Theorem

No Pythagorean Theorem mean:

=> No trigonometric because trigonometric is built on top of Pythagorean Theorem. etc $\mathrm{sin}\theta =\frac{a}{r}$

=> No Integration on line or curve because the integration is built on top of Pythagorean Theorem. etc: $s(x)=\int \sqrt{{f}^{\prime}(x{)}^{2}+1}$