How can you evaluate \int_0^{\pi/2}\log\cos(x)dx ?

kuhse4461a

kuhse4461a

Answered question

2021-12-30

How can you evaluate
0π2logcos(x)dx ?

Answer & Explanation

Kirsten Davis

Kirsten Davis

Beginner2021-12-31Added 27 answers

Even though there are numerous substitutions, all of the integral variables I employ are x for the purpose of simplicity. since there are many variables that could generate confusion.
I will stand for the integral value. By changing x for π2x, we have: 
I=0π2logcos(x) dx =0π2logsin(x) dx  
And then, we have: 
I=0π2log(2cos(x2)sin(x2)) dx  
=π2log2+0π2logcos(x2) dx +0π2logsin(x2) dx  
=π2+20π4logcos(x) dx +20π4+20π4logsin(x) dx  
=π2log2+I1+I2 
I substitute that in the bottom-second position from the left. x=x2 
For I1, use the substitution that x=π2x we obtain 
I1=2π4π2logsin(x) dx  
It gives that I1+I2=2I. So we have 
I=π2log2+2I 
I=π2log2

Shawn Kim

Shawn Kim

Beginner2022-01-01Added 25 answers

0π2lncosxdx=I=0π2lnsinxdx
By symmetry we have lncosx=lnsinx on the interval [0,π.2]. This is true for any even/odd function on this interval, as is an exercise in Demidovich-Problems in Analysis. Thus we have
2I=0π2lncosxdx+0π2lnsinxdx=0π2ln(sinxcosx)dx=0π2ln(12sin(2x))dx
All I used was ln(ab)=ln(a)+ln(b) and 2sinxcosx=sin(2x). Now we split the integral back up to obtain
0π2ln(2)dx+0π2ln(sin(2x))dx=2I
But the integral of lnsinu is 2I, thus we have
πln(2)2+I=2II=πln(2)2
Vasquez

Vasquez

Expert2022-01-09Added 669 answers

We have a well-known identity:
k=1n1sin(πkn)=2n2n
and since logsinx is an improperly Riemann-integrable function over (0,π), it follows that:
0πlogsinθdθ=limn+πnk=1n1logsin(πkn)=πlog2
so:
0π/2logsinθdθ=0π/2logsinθdθ=π2log2

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