Why is \cos(-pi/6) the same as \cos(pi/6)?

osteoblogda 2021-12-09 Answered
Why is \(\displaystyle{\cos{{\left(-\frac{\pi}{{6}}\right)}}}\) the same as \(\displaystyle{\cos{{\left(\frac{\pi}{{6}}\right)}}}\)?

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zurilomk4
Answered 2021-12-10 Author has 4818 answers
The cosine function is even. This means that \(\displaystyle{\cos{{\left(-\frac{\pi}{{6}}\right)}}}\) is the same thing as \(\displaystyle{\cos{{\left(\frac{\pi}{{6}}\right)}}}\).
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SlabydouluS62
Answered 2021-12-11 Author has 1854 answers
\(\displaystyle{\cos{{\left(-{x}\right)}}}={\cos{{\left({x}\right)}}}\) as the cos function is even.
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