Calculus question about the existence of antiderivative
Let f(x) be the function equal 0 on and equal 1 otherwise. Is clear to me that f has derivative undefined at . Is intuitive because the derivative would be as f increases by 1 in an infinitely small space.
Now I was wondering whether antiderivative exists at 0. My thoughts: antiderivative corresponds to area under the function. Before zero the are is always zero and after zero the area is 1 so that like in derivative case the area increases by 1 in an infinitely small space. But I don't know if intuition can be used in this case.
When does antiderivatives of functions exists in general and when not?