Prove that following sequence is Cauchy, using just the definition ((-1)^{n))/(n))^(infty)_(n=1)

shadsiei

shadsiei

Answered question

2021-08-20

Prove that following sequence is Cauchy, using just the definition
{(1)nn}n=1

Answer & Explanation

Asma Vang

Asma Vang

Skilled2021-08-21Added 93 answers

Consider the sequence
{an}={(1)nn}n=1
Let ε>0
For n,m, N if nm then 1n1m
Then
|anam|=|(1)nn(1)mm|
|(1)nn|+|(1)mm|
1n+1m
1n+1m=2m<ε if m>2ε
Let N be a positive integer such that N2ε
Then |anam|<ε for =nm
So {an}={(1)nn}n=1 is a Cauchy sequence

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